UPSC Combined Defense Service Previous Question Paper

1. Consider the following statements about GAGAN (GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation) system
1. It offers free enhanced satellite navigation signals over India which are ten times more precise than GPS
2. It was developed jointly by ISRO and NASA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Andaman and Nicobar Command is
(a) a Command of the Indian Army
(b) a regional Command of the Indian Coast Guard
(c) an integrated theater Command operating directly under the Chiefs of Staff Committee
(d) a joint Command of the Indian Navy and the Indian Air Force

3. Arihant is a
(a) Multi barrel rocket launcher
(b) Airborne Early Warning and Control System
(c) Unmanned Combat Aerial vehicle
(d) Nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine

4. Which one among the following is not a Command of the Indian Army?
(a) South-western Command
(b) Eastern Comman
(c) Army Training Command
(d) Central Command

5. Master Chief Petty officer is a rank in the
(a) Indian Navy
(b) Military Engineering Service
(c) The Army Aviation Corps
(d) Indian Air Force

6. “Project Seabird’ is connected with
(a) Greenfield naval base at West Coast of India
(b) Anti pirate operation at Somalia
(c) Indian Navy’s island development project
(d) Shipyard in Kutch district, Gujarat

7. Consider the following statements about world’s first Modern Slavery Bill, published in June 2014 by the British House of Commons
1. This is the first of its kind bill in Europe which specifically addresses slavery and trafficking in the 21st century.
2. The Bill fixes the maximum sentence available for the most serious offenders up to 14 years
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Operation Kachhapa is an NGO initiative for the conservation of
(a) Hawksbill turtles
(b) Olive Ridley sea turtles
(c) Green turtles
(d) Leatherback turtles

9. Consider the following statements about Project Mausam
1. The Project was launched in June 2014 by the Ministry of External Affairs.
2. At the macro level, the project aims to re-connect and re-establish communications between countries of the Indian Ocean world, which would lead to an enhanced under standing of cultural values and concerns: while at the micro level, the focus is on understanding national cultures in their regional maritime milieu.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. Which of the following is not the recommendation of the Arvind Mayaram Committee on Rationalizing the FDI/FPI definition Uune 2014)
(a) Foreign investment of 10 per cent or more in a listed company will be treated as foreign direct investment
(b) In a particular company, an investor can hold the investments either under the FPI (Foreign Portfolio Investment) route or under the FDI route, but not both
(c) Any investment by way of equity shares, compulsorily convertible preference shares/debentures which is less than 10 per cent of the p issue paid up equity capital of a company shall be treated as FPI
(d) on NRI Investors, the Committee recommended treating non repatriable investment as FDI

11. Baiji oil refinery is located at
(a) Iran
(b) Iraq
(c), South Sudan
(d) Russia

12. Consider the following statements
1. World Vitiligo Day is observed on 25th June every year.
2. Vitiligo is a progressive skin disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Stepwell Rani-ki-Vav was approved as a World Heritage Site by the UNESCO recently. It is located at
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Gujarat
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra

14. Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched
(a) When total product Marginal increases at an product increasing rate increases
(b) When total product Marginal increases at a product diminishing rate declines
(c) When total product Marginal reaches its product maximum becomes zero
(d) When total product/ Marginal begins to decline product becomes positive

15. way total output changes due is to change in all inputs in same proportion known as law of
(a) Returns to scale
(b) Diminishing returns
(c) Increasing returns
(d) Constant returns

16. Which of the following statements is/are true
1. If increase in demand and supply are of equal magnitude, the price will remain unchanged, but the equilibrium quantity will increase.
2. If increase in demand is of greater magnitude than increase in supply, both equilibrium price and equilibrium brium quantity will increase.
3. If increase in supply is of greater magnitude than increase in demand, equilibrium price will fall but equilibrium quantity will increase.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

17. A market in which there are large numbers of sellers of a particular product, but each seller sells somewhat differentiated but close products is termed as
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) oligopoly

18. The value of all final goods and services produced by the normal residents of a country and their property, whether operating within the domestic territory of the country or outside in a year is termed as
(a) Gross National Income
(b) Net National Income
(c) Gross Domestic Product
(d) Net Domestic Product

19. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. When marginal revenue is positive, total revenue increases with increase in output.
2. When marginal revenue is zero, total revenue is maximum
3. When marginal revenue becomes negative, total revenue falls with increase in output.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

20. National product at factor cost is equal
(a) Domestic product  + Net factor income from abroad
(b) National product at market prices  —  indirect taxes subsidies
(c) Gross domestic product — depreciation
(d) National product at market prices Indirect taxes  + subsidies

21. Which of the following theories form the basis of international trade?
1. Absolute cost difference
2. Comparative cost difference
3. Opportunity cost
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

22. Which one among the following is not a source of tax revenue for the Central Government in India
(a) Income tax
(b) Customs duties
(c) Service tax
(d) Motor Vehicle tax

23. Which of the following does not form part of current account of Balance of Payments
(a) Export and import of goods
(b) Export and import of services
(c) Income receipts and payments
(d) Capital receipts and payments

24. Novak Djokovic, who won the Men’s Wimbledon Tennis Open Tournament 2014, is from

(a) Serbia
(b) Spain
(c) Switzerland
(d) England

25. The technique of inducing rain from cloud is called
(a) Cloud computing
(b) Cloud control
(c) Cloud engineering
(d) Cloud seeding

26. Which of the following statements about Marrakesh Treaty is/are correct
1. The main goal of the treaty is to create a set of mandatory limitations and exceptions for the benefits of the blind and visually impaired.
2. India has ratified the treaty.
3. The treaty has come into force from July 2014
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

27. The upper and lower portions in common type of bi-focal lenses are respectively
(a) concave and convex
(b) convex and concave
(c) both concave of different focal lengths
(d) both convex of different focal lengths

28. Tungsten is used for the construction of filament in electric bulb because of its
(a) high specific resistance
(b) low specific resistance
(c) high light emitting power
(d) high melting point

29. Inactive Nitrogen and Argon gases are usually used in electric bulbs in order to
(a) increase the intensity of light emitted
(b) increase the life of the filament
(c) make the emitted light coloured
(d) make the production of bulb economical

30. In the phenomenon of dispersion of light, the light of shortest wavelength is
(a) accelerated and refracted the most
(b) slowed down and refracted the most
(c) accelerated and refracted the least
(d) slowed down and refracted the least

31. An oscilloscope is an instrument which allows us to see waves produced by
(a) visible light
(b) X-ray
(c) sound
(d) Gamma rays

32. The distribution of electrons into different orbits of an atom, as suggested by Bohr, is
(a) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 6 electrons in the L-orbit, 18 electrons in the M-orbit
(b) 2 in the K-orbit, 8 election in the L-orbit, 32 electron in the M-orbit
(c) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8 election in the L-orbit, 18 electrons in the M-orbit
(d) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8 electrons in the L-orbit, 16 electrons in the M-orbit

33. Carbon or Graphite rods are used in atomic reactors as moderators for sustained nuclear chain reaction through nuclear fission process. In this process
(a) the neutrons are made fast
(b) the protons are made fast
(c) the neutrons are made slow
(d) the protons are made slow

34. For a harmonic oscillator, the graph between momentum p and displacement q would come out as
(a) a straight line
(b) a parabola
(c) a circle
(d) an ellipse

35. Which one among the following is the generic name of the causal organism of Elephantiasis
(a) Filaria
(b) Microfilaria
(c) Wuchereria bancrofti
(d) Culex pipiens

36. Which one among the following statements is not correct
(a) Pulses are rich in proteins
(b) Milk is a rich source of Vitamin A
(c) Cereals are very poor source of carbohydrates
(d) Vegetables are rich source of minerals

37. Which of the statements given below are correct?
1. A person having blood group can donate blood to persons having blood group A and blood group
2. A person having blood group AB can donate blood to persons having blood groups ‘A’, ‘B’, AB’ or ‘O’.
3. A person with blood group ‘o’ can donate blood to persons having any blood group
4. A person with blood group ‘o’ can receive blood from the person of any of the blood groups.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

38. Which one among the following is the correct pathway for the elimination of urine
(a) Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder, Urethra
(b) Kidneys, Urethra, Bladder, Ureters
(c) Urethra, Ureters, Bladder, Kidneys
(d) Bladder, Ureters, Kidneys, Urethra

39. Which of the following parts are found in both plant and animal cells?
(a) Cell membrane, Chloroplast, Vacuole
(b) Cell wall, Nucleus, Vacuole
(c) Cell membrane, Cytoplasm, Nucleus
(d) Cell wall, Chloroplast, Cytoplasm

40. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Coronary artery supplies blood to heart muscles.
2. Pulmonary vein supplies blood to lungs.
3. Hepatic artery supplies blood to kidneys.
4. Renal vein supplies blood to kidneys.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4

41. The Equatorial region has no other season except summer. What could be the reason?
1. The length of day and night is more or less equal over the year
2. The Earth’s rotational velocity is maximum at the Equator
3. The criolis force is zero at the Equator
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

42. Consider the following statements Movement relating to the  Non-Aligned Movement
1. The created and founded
(NAM) was  during the collapse of the colonial system and the independence struggles of the peoples of Africa, Asia, Latin America and other regions of the world and at the height of the Cold War.
2. The First Summit of the Movement of Non-Aligned Countries was convened by the leaders of India, Indonesia, Egypt, Syria and Yugoslavia at Belgrade on September 1-6, 1961.
3. During the early days of the Movement, its actions were a key factor in the decolonization process, which led later to the attainment of freedom by many countries and to the founding of several new sovereign States.
4. The fundamental principle of the movement is to maintain equal distance from both the super powers by joining the military alliances of both the blocs.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2 only

43. Consider the following statements relating to the World Bank
1. The World Bank was established in 1946, which is headquartered in New York.
2. The World Bank Group has set for itself the goal to end extreme poverty from the World by 2030.
3. The World Bank is a vital source of financial and technical assistance to developing countries around the world. It is not a bank in the ordinary sense but a unique partner-ship to reduce poverty and support development.
4. The World Bank Group comprises five institutions managed by their member countries in order to promote shared prosperity by fostering the income growth of the bottom 40% for every country
Which of the statements given above are correct
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4 only

44. Which of the following statements about International Monetary Fund (IMF) are correct
1. The IMF is a United Nations specialized agency.
2. The IMF was founded at the Bretton Woods Conference in 1944 to secure international monetary cooperation.
3. The objective of the IMF is to stabilize currency exchange rates and to expand international liquidity (access to hard currencies)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

45. Consider the following statements relating to the World Trade Organization
1. The WTO deals with the global rules of trade between nations.
2. The goal of the WTO is to help producers of goods and services, exporters, and importers conduct their business.
3. The WTO, which is a successor body of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade, came into being following the Uruguay Round of Negotiations.
4. The WTO distances itself in framing of rules on trade in intellectual property rights.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 3 only